How is this consistant?

Barack Obama said, “whether it’s Freddie Mac or some of the investment banks, at some level what you had is a situation in which investors and management at these firms were taking extraordinary risks with enormous upside when the market was good, but you can’t have a situation where you expect the taxpayers to foot the bill when times are bad.”  However, he also supports the bailout of people who speculated and bought homes with variable intrest rates.  The were investing in their homes hwoever, not in the market.  These home owners speculated just as much as investors in the market did, so why should the taxpayers bailout one group and not the other?

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